A 59-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of severely painful skin lesions in the abdomen and thighs. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and end-stage renal disease. She has an arteriovenous fistula and undergoes hemodialysis 3 times weekly. She denies any recent medication changes or any illicit drug abuse, and denies ever taking warfarin. She is afebrile with a blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg and a heart rate of 96 beats per minute. On physical examination, there are areas of livedo reticularis over the abdomen with subcutaneous nodules and several necrotic ulcerations with eschar on both thighs. Her distal pulses are 2+ in all four extremities.   A review of her laboratory records over the past few months shows an uptrending calcium-phosphate product. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?     Ask StudybuddyGroup of answer choicesNecrotizing fasciitisDeep venous thrombosisCalcific uremic arteriolopathyHenoch–Schönlein purpuraNephrogenic systemic fibrosis

Au cours de l'insuffisance rénale aigue, le traitement de suppléance (Hémodialyse)ADoit être débutée dès le diagnostic.BPermet le maintien de la kaliémie dans les valeurs physiologiques.CPermet le traitement d'une hyperhydratation extracellulaireDNécessite souvent la création d'une fistule artério-veineuse.EDoit être débutée en urgence chez un patient anurique ayant une hyperkaliémie symptomatique

A 43-year-old woman comes to the office due to lower extremity edema that has developed over the last 2 weeks.  She has no cough, shortness of breath, chest pain, or leg pain.  Medical history is significant for diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.  Her antihypertensive regimen was recently adjusted to improve blood pressure control.  Blood pressure is 133/80 mm Hg and BMI is 27 kg/m2.  Physical examination shows bilateral pedal edema but is otherwise unremarkable.  Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms? A.Amlodipine B.Hydrochlorothiazide C.Losartan D.Metoprolol E.Ramipril

A 40-year-old woman presented with large bulging veins in both thighs and lower legs. Her primary concern was the unsightly aesthetic appearance of the varicose veins but on further questioning, she revealed that she was experiencing heaviness, tiredness and throbbing in the lower legs. She worked as a medical assistant, which involved constant standing for hours, at daily basis. By the end of the day, her legs were extremely fatigued, and it would take several hours of leg elevation to make them feel better. There was no past medical history of deep venous thrombosis. Duplex Ultrasound examination revealed a varicose great saphenous vein bilaterally running from the groin to the mid-distal thigh. Examination of the deep veins of both lower limbs showed no evidence of occlusion in the external iliac, common femoral, popliteal, anterior and posterior tibialis, and peroneal. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to explain the patient's findings?    Group of answer choicesFailure of arteriovenous anastomosesFailure of venous valves in the deep veinsPredominance of smooth muscle cells of a synthetic phenotype in venous wallsMutation of the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 3 geneDysfunctional endothelium producing increased levels of vasodilatory mediators

Julia’s flight has just landed from London. She is now experiencing excruciating pain is her right leg and notices that it is red and considerably swollen. She is told she has developed deep vein thrombosis on the long flight back to Australia. By reflecting on the BIOL122 learning material and your understanding of the Starling forces responsible for the distribution of water between the capillary and surrounding tissues, briefly describe how Julia’s deep vein thrombosis caused oedema in her right leg. (3 marks)

A 48-year-old man presents to the hospital with swelling of the abdomen and legs. He first noticed shortness of breath with exertion several months ago, and has had a few episodes where he momentarily became lightheaded and lost consciousness. Now the symptoms have been progressing with increased dyspnea and edema. He reports that he has always lived a healthy lifestyle and has no past medical history. There is no family history of any cardiac or pulmonary disease, or any cancer. He was born in Brazil and moved to the United States at the age of 43. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. On cardiac examination, the apex is displaced laterally with an S3 on auscultation. Estimated central venous pressure is 15 mmHg, and there are faint crackles at the base of his lungs. He has hepatomegaly with shifting dullness and bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. An ECG is normal, with no visible Q waves. Which infectious etiology is most likely responsible for this patient's disease?