The price of a stock, which pays no dividends, is $30 and the strike price of a one year European call option on the stock is $25. The risk-free rate is 4% (continuously compounded). Which of the following is a lower bound for the option such that there are arbitrage opportunities if the price is below the lower bound and no arbitrage opportunities if it is above the lower bound? A. $5.00 B. $4.98 C. $3.98 D. $5.98
Question
The price of a stock, which pays no dividends, is 25. The risk-free rate is 4% (continuously compounded). Which of the following is a lower bound for the option such that there are arbitrage opportunities if the price is below the lower bound and no arbitrage opportunities if it is above the lower bound?
A. $5.00
B. $4.98
C. $3.98
D. $5.98
Solution
The correct answer is:
B. $4.98
Here's the reasoning behind this choice:
The lower bound for a European call option on a non-dividend paying stock can be calculated using the formula:
Lower Bound = Stock Price - Strike Price / e^(r*t)
where:
- e is the base of the natural logarithm (approximately 2.71828)
- r is the risk-free rate (as a decimal)
- t is the time to expiration (in years)
In this case, the stock price is 25, the risk-free rate is 4% (or 0.04), and the time to expiration is 1 year.
So, the lower bound is:
Lower Bound = 25 / e^(0.04*1)
Using a calculator to evaluate e^(0.04*1) gives approximately 1.0408.
So, the lower bound is approximately 25 / 1.0408 = $4.98.
Therefore, there are arbitrage opportunities if the price of the option is below 4.98.
Similar Questions
When the non-dividend paying stock price is $20, the strike price is $20, the risk-free rate is 6%, the volatility is 20% and the time to maturity is 3 months which of the following is the price of a European call option on the stock? A. 19.7N(0.2) –20N(0.1) B. 19.7N(0.1) –20N(0.2) C. 20N(0.2) –19.7N(0.1) D. 20N(0.1) –19.7N(0.2)
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