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. Let G be a group and ๐‘Ž, ๐‘ โˆˆ ๐บ. Then prove that (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)๐‘› = ๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘›๐‘Žโˆ’1

Question

. Let G be a group and ๐‘Ž, ๐‘ โˆˆ ๐บ. Then prove that (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)๐‘› = ๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘›๐‘Žโˆ’1

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Solution

To prove the statement (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)๐‘› = ๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘›๐‘Žโˆ’1, we can use the method of mathematical induction.

Base Case (n=1): (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)ยน = ๐‘Ž๐‘ยน๐‘Žโˆ’1, which is true.

Inductive Step: Assume the statement is true for some positive integer k, i.e., (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)แต = ๐‘Ž๐‘แต๐‘Žโˆ’1.

We need to prove that the statement is true for k+1, i.e., (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)แตโบยน = ๐‘Ž๐‘แตโบยน๐‘Žโˆ’1.

(๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)แตโบยน = (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1)แต * (๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1) = ๐‘Ž๐‘แต๐‘Žโˆ’1 * ๐‘Ž๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1 (by the inductive hypothesis)

= ๐‘Ž๐‘แต(๐‘Žโˆ’1๐‘Ž)๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1 = ๐‘Ž๐‘แต๐‘๐‘Žโˆ’1 = ๐‘Ž๐‘แตโบยน๐‘Žโˆ’1.

Hence, the statement is true for all positive integers n.

This problem has been solved

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