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A 66-year-old man comes to the emergency department with significant pain in the right leg.  He says, "The pain started yesterday; I tried resting and taking acetaminophen, but it did not go away."  Medical history includes coronary artery disease with a previous anterior wall myocardial infarction, heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.  The patient does not adhere regularly to prescribed medications.  He does not smoke cigarettes or consume alcohol.  The patient appears to be in moderate discomfort due to pain.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F), blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min and regular, and respirations are 14/min.  On physical examination, the right lower extremity appears pale and cooler than the left.  On palpation, no pulses can be appreciated at the right popliteal and dorsalis pedis arteries, but they are detected on Doppler examination.  Sensory and motor examination is unremarkable.  Intravenous heparin infusion is initiated.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

Question

A 66-year-old man comes to the emergency department with significant pain in the right leg.  He says, "The pain started yesterday; I tried resting and taking acetaminophen, but it did not go away."  Medical history includes coronary artery disease with a previous anterior wall myocardial infarction, heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.  The patient does not adhere regularly to prescribed medications.  He does not smoke cigarettes or consume alcohol.  The patient appears to be in moderate discomfort due to pain.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F), blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min and regular, and respirations are 14/min.  On physical examination, the right lower extremity appears pale and cooler than the left.  On palpation, no pulses can be appreciated at the right popliteal and dorsalis pedis arteries, but they are detected on Doppler examination.  Sensory and motor examination is unremarkable.  Intravenous heparin infusion is initiated.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

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Solution

The patient's symptoms suggest acute limb ischemia, a condition characterized by a sudden decrease in limb perfusion, usually due to thrombosis or embolism. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue necrosis and limb loss.

The initial management of acute limb ischemia includes anticoagulation to prevent propagation of the clot, which has been initiated in this patient with the administration of intravenous heparin.

The next step in management should be an emergent vascular surgery consultation for possible surgical intervention. This could include catheter-directed thrombolysis, percutaneous mechanical thrombectomy, or open surgical thrombectomy, depending on the patient's condition and the surgeon's assessment.

In addition, the patient's uncontrolled hypertension and irregular adherence to prescribed medications should be addressed to reduce the risk of further cardiovascular events.

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