A 22-year-old man comes to the office because of a 4-month history of intermittent right upper quadrant pain. He has otherwise been healthy. He does not smoke, drink alcoholic beverages, or use illicit drugs. He takes no medications. His mother underwent splenectomy several years ago, but he does not know the reason. The patient is a firearms instructor and also works at a gun store. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. The spleen tip is palpated 2 cm below the left costal margin. Bowel sounds are normal throughout. Complete blood count shows a hemoglobin concentration of 9.9 g/dL, mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration of 48 pg/cell, and mean corpuscular volume of 90 μm3. A peripheral blood smear is shown.The result of a direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?A. Formation of pigment gallstonesB. Hepatic vein thrombosisC. Intermittent vasospasmD. Lead toxicityE. Recurrent microvascular occlusion
Question
A 22-year-old man comes to the office because of a 4-month history of intermittent right upper quadrant pain. He has otherwise been healthy. He does not smoke, drink alcoholic beverages, or use illicit drugs. He takes no medications. His mother underwent splenectomy several years ago, but he does not know the reason. The patient is a firearms instructor and also works at a gun store. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. The spleen tip is palpated 2 cm below the left costal margin. Bowel sounds are normal throughout. Complete blood count shows a hemoglobin concentration of 9.9 g/dL, mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration of 48 pg/cell, and mean corpuscular volume of 90 μm3. A peripheral blood smear is shown.The result of a direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?A. Formation of pigment gallstonesB. Hepatic vein thrombosisC. Intermittent vasospasmD. Lead toxicityE. Recurrent microvascular occlusion
Solution
The patient's symptoms and lab results suggest he has anemia, as indicated by his low hemoglobin concentration. The fact that his mother underwent a splenectomy could suggest a hereditary condition. The peripheral blood smear, which is not shown here, would provide more information about the shape and condition of the red blood cells.
Given the information provided, the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms is A. Formation of pigment gallstones. This is because pigment gallstones are often associated with conditions that cause increased breakdown of red blood cells, leading to anemia. This could also explain the patient's intermittent right upper quadrant pain, as gallstones can cause pain in this area.
The other options are less likely: Hepatic vein thrombosis (B) would likely cause more severe and constant pain, not intermittent pain. Intermittent vasospasm (C) is not typically associated with anemia. Lead toxicity (D) can cause anemia, but the patient's occupation and lifestyle do not suggest lead exposure. Recurrent microvascular occlusion (E) is a feature of sickle cell disease, but this would typically cause more severe symptoms and the patient's mean corpuscular volume is normal, which is not typical in sickle cell disease.
Similar Questions
A 60-year-old female presents to the ED with right upper quadrant abdominal pain that began several hours ago. She has had occasional RUQ pain over the past 3 months but never this severe. Her PMH is significant for HTN and osteoarthritis. On physical examination, she appears ill. Scleral icterus is present. She has RUQ abdominal tenderness without peritoneal signs. There are no surgical scars on the abdomen. Initial vital signs are as follows: Temperature 102.1°F, RR 16, BP 95/70 mm Hg, pulse 120. Laboratory tests reveal ALT 136 U/L and AST 119 U/L, ALP 105 U/L, direct bilirubin 4.5 mg/dL, and WBC count 16.8 × 103/mm3. Ultrasound of the abdomen shows common bile duct dilatation with obstructing gallstones. Piperacillin-tazobactam is started and the patient is resuscitated with IV fluids. Repeat vitals after antibiotics and 4 L of IV fluids are administered show a BP 110/82 mm Hg, HR 85, and temperature 98.8°F. Repeat hepatic labs show increasingly elevated transaminases and hyperbilirubinemia. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your uncle is complaining of pain in the lower right abdomen. He is also suffering from bouts of vomiting, nausea, and fever. What might be a probable cause for this discomfort? A. diarrhea B. constipation C. appendicitis D. calhexia E. mouth ulcers
Inflammation and RepairCase 1A 55-year-old male complains of mid-abdominal pain for several weeks. There is mild upperabdominal tenderness on palpation and bowel sounds are present. A fecal occult blood test ispositive.The patient underwent a laparoscopic appendectomy.Refer to slide #1. What is your diagnosis? Illustrate below what you see in the slide and describe themicroscopic findings.2. Discuss the five cardinal signs of inflammation in terms of pathogenesis andunderlying morphologic changes.113. Differentiate acute, chronic, and granulomatous inflammation in terms ofEtiology:Pathogenesis:Microscopic appearance:Laboratory findings
A 25-year-old, 220-kg female presents to the emergency department with three hours of acute-onset right lower quadrant pain. She describes the pain as mild and reports persistent nausea and vomiting. There is moderate diffuse tenderness on exam. Laboratory studies reveal a white blood cell count of 17,000 and a negative urine hCG. She is too heavy to fit onto the CT table. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most helpful in finding the cause of this patient’s abdominal pain?Question 5Select one:a.Diagnostic laparotomyb.Abdominal plain filmc.Diagnostic laparoscopyd.Diagnostic peritoneal lavagee.Abdominal ultrasound
A 45-year-old Caucasian man is referred for further workup of chronic abdominal pain and diarrhea. These symptoms have been present for 2 months, and he has lost 10 kg of weight over this time. He also reports that he has developed pain in multiple joints that comes and goes and seems to spread from one joint to the next. He denies fevers, chills, chest pain, shortness of breath, vomiting, episodes of constipation, or hematochezia. He is married and works as a farmer, with no recent sick contacts or travel. His vitals are within normal limits, and his examination is unremarkable. A complete laboratory workup is unremarkable. He undergoes a colonoscopy, which is normal, and then undergoes an upper endoscopy. Biopsy of the small intestine shows many macrophages within the lamina propria that stain positive with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS). Which of the following is likely to cure this patient of his chronic diarrhea?Ask StudybuddyGroup of answer choicesCorticosteroidsAntibioticsRadioiodineDietary changesAntiretrovirals
Upgrade your grade with Knowee
Get personalized homework help. Review tough concepts in more detail, or go deeper into your topic by exploring other relevant questions.