A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for evaluation of amenorrhea.  The patient had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery 2 years ago.  She breastfed the infant for the first year and had irregular menses during that time.  The patient had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) placed after she stopped breastfeeding and has not had a menstrual period since.  She has lost 20 kg (44.1 lb) since giving birth but has not had fatigue or heat intolerance.  The patient has no medical conditions and takes a multivitamin daily.  Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 68/min.  BMI is 19 kg/m2.  On pelvic examination, the external genitalia are normal, and the IUD strings are properly placed.  Urine pregnancy test result is negative.  Serum FSH level is low, but prolactin and TSH levels are normal.  A progesterone challenge test is performed, and there is no uterine bleeding.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's amenorrhea?

An 18-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the hospital at 35 weeks gestation due to leakage of fluid and contractions for the past 3 hours.  The patient was last seen in the office 2 weeks ago, and her prenatal care has been uncomplicated.  She has no chronic medical conditions and no medication allergies.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 102/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min.  Speculum examination shows a vaginal pool of nitrazine-positive, clear fluid and the cervix dilated to 1 cm.  Transabdominal ultrasound reveals a fetus in vertex presentation, and the amniotic fluid has a deepest vertical pocket of 1.5 cm.  The fetal heart rate tracing has moderate variability and no decelerations.  The tocometer reveals contractions every 2-3 minutes.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient? A.Amnioinfusion B.Cesarean delivery C.Magnesium sulfate D.Nifedipine E.Penicillin F.TerbutalineProceed To Next Item

A woman with which of the following diseases is the most likely to deliver a very large infant (weighing 10 pounds or more)?

A 35 year old woman presents with history of periods of amenorrhea followed by heavy bleeding and denies using drugs. She wants to get pregnant. The following are likely causes: a) Over stimulation of the follicular system of the ovaries by the Hypophysis. b) Under production of oestrogens and progesterone c) Under production of FSH and LH d) All the above e) None of the above

Which trimester is an especially critical period when poor nutrition or drug use can result in birth defects?Multiple ChoiceFirstSecondThird

A 26 year old married woman presents with infertility and amenorrhoea. She has a normal satisfying sexual life. On work up she was found to be normal 46XX, no oestrogen or progesterone nor evidence of androgens. She has poorly developed breasts. HSG is normal. The following are possible causes: a) Testicular feminization syndrome b) Mullerian dysgenesis c) Gonadal dysgenesis d) B and C above e) All the above