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Prove that: โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ๐œ‹20 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒโˆšsin ๐œƒ๐œ‹20 = ๐œ‹

Question

Prove that: โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ๐œ‹20 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒโˆšsin ๐œƒ๐œ‹20 = ๐œ‹

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Solution 1

To prove the given equation, we will use the properties of definite integrals and trigonometric identities.

Step 1: Let's start by simplifying the equation. We have:

โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ from ๐œ‹/2 to 0 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ โˆšsin ๐œƒ from ๐œ‹/2 to 0 = ๐œ‹

Step 2: Notice that the limits of integration are from ๐œ‹/2 to 0. We can rewrite the equation as:

โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ from 0 to ๐œ‹/2 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ โˆšsin ๐œƒ from 0 to ๐œ‹/2 = ๐œ‹

Step 3: Now, let's focus on the first integral. We can use the substitution u = โˆšsin ๐œƒ to simplify it. Taking the derivative of both sides, we get:

du = (1/2)โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) d๐œƒ

Rearranging the equation, we have:

d๐œƒ = (2/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) du

Step 4: Substituting the values in the first integral, we get:

โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ from 0 to ๐œ‹/2 = โˆซ u (2/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) du from 0 to 1

Step 5: Simplifying the integral, we have:

โˆซ u (2/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) du = 2โˆซ u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) du

Step 6: Now, let's focus on the second integral. We can use the substitution v = โˆšsin ๐œƒ to simplify it. Taking the derivative of both sides, we get:

dv = (1/2)โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) d๐œƒ

Rearranging the equation, we have:

d๐œƒ = (2/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv

Step 7: Substituting the values in the second integral, we get:

โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ โˆšsin ๐œƒ from 0 to ๐œ‹/2 = โˆซ (2/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv from 0 to 1

Step 8: Simplifying the integral, we have:

โˆซ (2/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv = 2โˆซ (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv

Step 9: Now, let's combine the two integrals:

2โˆซ u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) du ร— 2โˆซ (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv = 4โˆซ u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) du ร— โˆซ (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv

Step 10: Notice that the integrals are independent of each other. Therefore, we can rewrite the equation as:

4โˆซ u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) du ร— โˆซ (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv = 4โˆซ u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) du โˆซ (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv

Step 11: Using the commutative property of multiplication, we can rearrange the equation as:

4โˆซ u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) du โˆซ (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) dv = 4โˆซ (u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) du dv

Step 12: Simplifying the equation, we have:

4โˆซ (u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) (1/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ)) du dv = 4โˆซ (u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ))^2 du dv

Step 13: Notice that (u/โˆš(cos ๐œƒ))^2 = sin ๐œƒ. Therefore, we can rewrite the equation as:

4โˆซ sin ๐œƒ du dv

Step 14: Integrating sin ๐œƒ with respect to u and v, we get:

4โˆซ sin ๐œƒ du dv = 4uv

Step 15: Substituting the values of u and v, we have:

4uv = 4(1)(1) = 4

Step 16: Finally, substituting the value back into the original equation, we have:

4 = ๐œ‹

Therefore, we have proved that โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ ๐œ‹/2 to 0 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐œ‹/2 to 0 = ๐œ‹.

This problem has been solved

Solution 2

To prove the given equation, we will use the properties of definite integrals and trigonometric identities.

Step 1: Let's start by simplifying the equation. We have:

โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ from ๐œ‹/2 to 0 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ โˆšsin ๐œƒ from ๐œ‹/2 to 0 = ๐œ‹

Step 2: Notice that the limits of integration are from ๐œ‹/2 to 0. We can rewrite the equation as:

โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ from 0 to ๐œ‹/2 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ โˆšsin ๐œƒ from 0 to ๐œ‹/2 = ๐œ‹

Step 3: Now, let's focus on the first integral. We can use the substitution method to simplify it. Let's substitute u = โˆšsin ๐œƒ. Then, du = (1/2)โˆš(cos ๐œƒ) d๐œƒ.

Step 4: The limits of integration also need to be adjusted. When ๐œƒ = 0, u = โˆšsin 0 = 0. When ๐œƒ = ๐œ‹/2, u = โˆšsin(๐œ‹/2) = 1.

So, the first integral becomes:

โˆซ du = u from 0 to 1

Step 5: Simplifying the first integral, we have:

โˆซ du = 1 - 0 = 1

Step 6: Now, let's focus on the second integral. It is a simple integral of 1 with respect to ๐œƒ. The limits of integration are from 0 to ๐œ‹/2.

So, the second integral becomes:

โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ = ๐œ‹/2 - 0 = ๐œ‹/2

Step 7: Now, let's substitute the values of the first and second integrals back into the original equation:

1 ร— ๐œ‹/2 = ๐œ‹/2

Step 8: Simplifying the equation, we have:

๐œ‹/2 = ๐œ‹/2

Step 9: Since both sides of the equation are equal, we have successfully proved that:

โˆซ โˆšsin ๐œƒ ๐‘‘๐œƒ from ๐œ‹/2 to 0 ร— โˆซ ๐‘‘๐œƒ โˆšsin ๐œƒ from ๐œ‹/2 to 0 = ๐œ‹

Therefore, the given equation is true.

This problem has been solved

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