A 49-year-old presents with an abscess of the right thumb. The physician incises the abscess and purulent sanguineous fluid is drained. The wound is packed with iodoform packing. What CPT® code is reported? a. 26011-F5 b. 10060-F5 c. 10061-F5 d. 26010-F5
Question
A 49-year-old presents with an abscess of the right thumb. The physician incises the abscess and purulent sanguineous fluid is drained. The wound is packed with iodoform packing. What CPT® code is reported? a. 26011-F5 b. 10060-F5 c. 10061-F5 d. 26010-F5
Solution
The correct answer is c. 10061-F5.
Here's why:
The CPT® code 10061 is used for incision and drainage of abscess (eg, carbuncle, suppurative hidradenitis, cutaneous or subcutaneous abscess, cyst, furuncle, or paronychia); complicated or multiple. The description of the procedure matches with the scenario given in the question.
The modifier F5 is used to indicate that the procedure was performed on the right hand's thumb.
So, the correct code is 10061-F5.
Similar Questions
A 3-year-old is brought into the ED crying. He cannot bend his left arm after his older brother twisted it. X-ray is performed and the ED physician diagnoses the patient has a dislocated nursemaid elbow. The ED physician reduces the elbow successfully. The patient is able to move his arm again. The patient is referred to an orthopedist for follow-up care. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 24565-54-LT, S53.194S, Y33.XXXA b. 24640-54-LT, S53.091A, W50.2XXA c. 24600-54-LT, S53.002A, W49.9XXA d. 24640-54-LT, S53.032A, W50.2XXA
The patient fell and fractured his left femoral shaft in three places. The fracture is treated with an ORIF of the left femur with an intramedullary nail and interlocking screws (peritrochanterically). The orthopedist also places the leg in a plaster splint prior to leaving the OR. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 27513, 29505 b. 27245 c. 27507, 29505 d. 27506
A 6-year-old male suffered a fracture after falling off the monkey bars at school. He fell on an outstretched hand and suffered a transcondylar fracture of the left humerus. After prep and drape, a manipulation was done to achieve anatomic reduction. Once the joint was adequately reduced, pins were placed through the skin distally and proximally into the bone to maintain excellent fixation and anatomic reduction. The pins were bent, trimmed and covered with a sterile dressing and a posterior splint was placed on the patient’s arm. What CPT® code is reported? a. 24546-LT b. 24530-LT c. 24538-LT d. 24516-LT
7. A 37-year-old male is admitted with a severely abscessed tooth, BP 90/42, HR 136, RR28, Spo2 90% on room air, temperature 38.7o C. The nurse suspects that the patient hasdeveloped sepsis. What is the priority nursing intervention?A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.B. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation.C. Obtain a complete chemistry for laboratory analysis.D. Administer prescribed antibiotics prior to blood cultures.B. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation.
The patient came to the office for a therapeutic injection, left shoulder subacromial space. What procedure code is reported? a. 20612 b. 20610 c. 20552 d. 20550
Upgrade your grade with Knowee
Get personalized homework help. Review tough concepts in more detail, or go deeper into your topic by exploring other relevant questions.